Coronary Artery Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 37 year old woman develops sudden left arm weakness shortly after a long airplane flight. Duplex ultrasound of the leg reveals a deep venous thrombosis. Transthoracic echocardiography with bubble study shows intermittent right to left shunting across the atrial septum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- APatent foramen ovaleCorrect answer
- BPersistent truncus arteriosus
- CVentricular septal defect
- DTricuspid atresia
- EAtrial septal defect
- FPulmonary arteriovenous fistula
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