Chronic Kidney Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 58-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 9.2%) and chronic NSAIDs use presents with gross hematuria and colicky left flank pain. Vital signs: BP 156/92, HR 98, RR 16, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL. CT imaging reveals sloughed necrotic material within the renal collecting system. Urinalysis shows no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AAcute cystitis
- BRenal papillary necrosisCorrect answer
- CMembranous nephropathy
- DAutosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
- EMinimal change disease
- FUric acid nephropathy
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