Anemias USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 61-year-old woman develops acute dyspnea, fever, and hypoxemia within 2 hours of plasma transfusion. Vital signs show BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 118 bpm, RR 28/min, temperature 38.5°C, and SpO2 82% on room air. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Jugular venous pressure is normal, and cardiac auscultation reveals no murmurs. Serum troponin is normal. Which diagnosis best explains her acute presentation?
Answer choices
- AWarm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- BAcute hemolytic transfusion reaction
- CTransfusion associated circulatory overload
- DFebrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
- ETransfusion related acute lung injuryCorrect answer
- FAcute coronary syndrome triggered by transfusion-related anemia
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