Anemias USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 24-year-old man is evaluated for painless gross hematuria after strenuous exercise. He has no dysuria or flank pain. He is otherwise healthy, and urinalysis shows many red blood cells without casts. He reports that several relatives carry sickle cell trait. Which of the following complications is this patient at increased risk of developing due to his underlying condition?
Answer choices
- AWarm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- BHemarthroses
- CFactor VIII deficiency
- DAplastic anemia due to marrow failure
- ERenal papillary necrosisCorrect answer
- FAcute tubular necrosis with preserved renal function
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.