Adrenal Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 36-year-old man with a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma presents with recurrent nephrolithiasis, recurrent peptic ulcers, and diarrhea. Vital signs: BP 158/95 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 16/min, temp 37°C. Laboratory studies show fasting serum gastrin 892 pg/mL (normal <100), serum calcium 11.8 mg/dL, and 24-hour urine free cortisol 285 mcg (normal <50). Imaging confirms a 1.2 cm pituitary adenoma. He denies headaches. Which syndrome best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- AMEN 1Correct answer
- BVon Hippel Lindau syndrome
- CMEN 2A
- DMEN 2B
- ELi Fraumeni syndrome
- FCarney complex
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