Adrenal Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 46 year old woman has central obesity, purple abdominal striae, and glucose intolerance. ACTH is low, and serum cortisol is elevated with no suppression after low or high dose dexamethasone. CT scan shows a unilateral adrenal mass. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her disease?
Answer choices
- ABilateral adrenal hyperplasia due to ACTH excess
- BAutonomous cortisol production by an adrenal adenomaCorrect answer
- CPituitary ACTH excess
- DEctopic CRH secretion
- EExogenous glucocorticoid administration
- FPrimary adrenocortical carcinoma with ACTH secretion
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