Virology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 28-year-old man returns from Southeast Asia 3 weeks ago with severe cramping abdominal pain, profuse watery diarrhea, and diffuse myalgia. Vital signs show temperature 38.9°C, heart rate 104/min, blood pressure 108/72 mmHg, respirations 18/min, and SpO2 98% on room air. Stool culture is negative. Serum IgM antibodies to dengue virus non-structural protein-1 (NS1) are elevated. No hepatomegaly or petechiae are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Answer choices
- AVaccination with dengue tetravalent vaccine
- BColonoscopy to evaluate for inflammatory bowel disease
- CSupportive care with careful fluid management and platelet monitoringCorrect answer
- DImmediate initiation of intravenous ribavirin
- EEmpiric broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
- FIntravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) to neutralize dengue antibodies
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