Vascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 45-year-old man with no significant past medical history presents with sudden onset of a cold, painful left leg with skin mottling and diminished sensation. Exam shows absent pulses in the left lower extremity distal to the inguinal ligament. He reports palpitations and new-onset atrial fibrillation was noted on ECG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- ACompartment syndrome
- BAcute deep venous thrombosis
- CChronic peripheral arterial disease
- DAcute arterial thromboembolism from atrial fibrillationCorrect answer
- EAcute aortic occlusion
- FThromboangiitis obliterans with acute exacerbation
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