Vascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 58-year-old woman with a 40-year smoking history presents with claudication in both legs that worsens with walking and improves with rest. She has diminished femoral pulses bilaterally and a bruit over the abdominal aorta. Ankle-brachial indices are 0.65 on the right and 0.68 on the left. Which of the following is the most likely vascular lesion location?
Answer choices
- APopliteal artery only
- BIliac and femoral arteriesCorrect answer
- CAortic bifurcation only
- DRenal arteries
- ETibial and peroneal arteries only
- FSubclavian and axillary arteries
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.