Vascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 35-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset, severe, tearing abdominal pain radiating to her back. She reports feeling faint. Vital signs: BP 88/52 mmHg, HR 118 bpm, RR 22/min, temperature 37.1°C. Physical examination reveals a pulsatile abdominal mass and left flank ecchymosis. Bedside ultrasound shows a 5.3 cm anterior lumbar mass with turbulent color flow on Doppler. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- ARuptured abdominal aortic aneurysmCorrect answer
- BAcute aortic dissection with contained rupture
- CSplenic artery pseudoaneurysm with hemorrhage
- DRenal infarction with retroperitoneal hematoma
- EAcute pancreatitis with hemorrhagic necrosis
- FMesenteric artery thrombosis with bowel ischemia
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