Vascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with an expanding pulsatile abdominal mass. Vital signs: BP 142/88 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16, temp 37°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Abdominal ultrasound confirms a 6 cm infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm without dissection or rupture. Serum creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL. He denies abdominal or back pain. He takes metformin and lisinopril. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Answer choices
- AConservative medical management with beta-blockers only
- BImmediate emergency surgical repair
- CSerial imaging surveillance with imaging every 12 months
- DElective open or endovascular repairCorrect answer
- EInitiate antithrombotic therapy to prevent thromboembolism
- FPercutaneous transluminal angioplasty with stent placement to the aorta
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