Vascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 72-year-old man with hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with sudden onset of severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. He has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg and an aortic regurgitation murmur. A CT angiography shows a dissection of the descending thoracic aorta. Which of the following is the primary acute management goal?
Answer choices
- AAdminister aspirin for cardioprotection
- BPlace an intra-aortic balloon pump for hemodynamic support
- CInitiate heparin anticoagulation to prevent thromboembolism
- DImmediately perform emergency aortic repair surgery
- EReduce aortic wall stress with blood pressure control and negative inotropic agentsCorrect answer
- FAdminister nitroprusside alone without beta-blockade to rapidly lower blood pressure
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