Vascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 7-year-old boy presents with palpable purpura on the buttocks and lower extremities, colicky abdominal pain, and bilateral knee arthralgia one week after upper respiratory infection. Vital signs: BP 118/76 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 20/min, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. Urinalysis reveals microscopic hematuria with RBC casts. Abdominal examination shows no hepatosplenomegaly. He denies recent drug exposure. Which diagnosis best explains this clinical presentation?
Answer choices
- AKawasaki disease
- BBuerger disease
- CTakayasu arteritis
- DPolyarteritis nodosa
- EIgA vasculitisCorrect answer
- FMicroscopic polyangiitis
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.