Vascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 71-year-old man with untreated chronic atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset severe left leg pain and numbness. Vital signs: BP 138/82 mmHg, HR 112 bpm and irregular, RR 18, SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a pale, cool left leg with absent dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. Serum creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL. No prior claudication history. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Answer choices
- AAtherosclerotic claudication due to chronic plaque buildup
- BPopliteal cyst rupture
- CChronic venous insufficiency
- DArterial embolism to the lower extremityCorrect answer
- ECellulitis due to skin flora
- FThrombosis of a popliteal artery aneurysm
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