Vascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 72-year-old man with a 50 pack-year smoking history and hypertension presents for routine care. Vital signs show BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 84 bpm, RR 16, temp 37°C. On abdominal examination, a pulsatile mass is palpated slightly left of midline above the umbilicus. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a 4.2 cm anterior-posterior diameter aortic lumen with mural thrombus. No lower extremity edema is noted. He takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. Which underlying etiology best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- AFibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries
- BTertiary syphilitic destruction of the vasa vasorum
- CCongenital absence of elastic tissue in the aorta
- DAutoimmune granulomatous inflammation of branch vessels
- EAtherosclerotic weakening of the abdominal aortic wallCorrect answer
- FMarfan syndrome with cystic medial necrosis of the aortic media
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