Valvular Heart Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 45-year-old man with Marfan syndrome presents with acute, tearing chest pain radiating to the back. Vital signs show BP 180/110 mmHg (right arm) and 140/95 mmHg (left arm), HR 102/min, RR 20/min, and SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a new high-pitched diastolic murmur at the left sternal border. Chest X-ray shows widened mediastinum. He denies dyspnea. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- APulmonary embolism
- BSpontaneous pneumothorax
- CHypertensive emergency
- DAcute myocardial infarction
- EAortic dissection (Type A)Correct answer
- FAcute pericarditis with cardiac tamponade
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