Valvular Heart Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 35-year-old man with Marfan syndrome presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain, dyspnea, and a new diastolic murmur at the left sternal border. His blood pressure is elevated bilaterally, and he has unequal arm pulses. Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute intervention?
Answer choices
- AIntravenous vasodilators and diuretics
- BUrgent cardiac catheterization
- CImmediate cardiac surgery consultation and aortic imagingCorrect answer
- DThrombolytic therapy
- EEchocardiography and observation
- FPercutaneous endovascular repair of the aorta
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