Pulmonary Embolism USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 35-year-old woman with nephrotic syndrome hospitalized on bed rest for one week presents with acute dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. Vital signs show BP 128/82, HR 102, RR 22, SpO2 92% on room air, temperature 37.2°C. D-dimer is elevated at 0.8 μg/mL. Chest X-ray is unremarkable without infiltrates or effusion. She denies leg swelling. Which of the following best explains her clinical presentation?
Answer choices
- AAnxiety-induced hyperventilation
- BPE due to hypercoagulability from nephrotic syndromeCorrect answer
- CSeptic emboli from infected ascites
- DSpontaneous pneumothorax
- EAcute decompensated heart failure
- FAcute coronary syndrome secondary to nephrotic syndrome-induced hyperlipidemia
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