Pulmonary Embolism USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 44-year-old man with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis and subsequent pulmonary embolism is found to have a Factor V Leiden mutation on hypercoagulability testing. He is heterozygous for the mutation. He has been on anticoagulation for 6 months. Which of the following best describes the implication of this finding for his long-term management?
Answer choices
- AAnticoagulation can be safely stopped at 6 months because heterozygous Factor V Leiden carries low recurrence risk
- BTest all first-degree relatives and anticoagulate those who are positive
- CSwitch to aspirin for lifelong secondary prevention
- DThe Factor V Leiden mutation does not affect management decisions for VTE
- EIndefinite anticoagulation is recommended given the combination of unprovoked VTE and thrombophiliaCorrect answer
- FAnticoagulation should be continued for 2 additional years given the thrombophilia, after which it can be safely discontinued
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