Pulmonary Embolism USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 72-year-old man with confirmed PE has a serum troponin I level of 0.8 ng/mL (normal < 0.04) and a BNP of 650 pg/mL (normal < 100). His blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg and heart rate is 100 bpm. Echocardiography shows right ventricular dilation with hypokinesis of the free wall but preserved apical motion. Which of the following best describes the significance of the echocardiographic finding?
Answer choices
- AMcConnell sign, indicating acute right ventricular strain from PECorrect answer
- BNormal right ventricular function
- CRight ventricular infarction from coronary occlusion
- DTakotsubo cardiomyopathy with apical ballooning
- EChronic pulmonary hypertension with RV remodeling
- FD-shaped interventricular septal bowing from right ventricular pressure overload in acute PE
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations ā plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas ā with a free MedBoardPRO account.