Neuroanatomy USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 51-year-old man with hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with acute onset of symptoms. On examination, he has right-sided limb ataxia, right-sided loss of pain and temperature sensation over the trunk and extremities, but preserved motor strength in all limbs. Cranial nerve examination reveals a constricted left pupil with ptosis, left facial anhidrosis, and normal extraocular movements. Sensory examination of the face is intact bilaterally. Brain MRI shows acute infarction in the medial medulla on the left side. Which of the following vascular syndromes best explains this clinical presentation?
Answer choices
- AMedial medullary syndromeCorrect answer
- BLateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome)
- CWeber syndrome
- DFoville syndrome
- EMillard-Gubler syndrome
- FLocked-in syndrome
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