Neuroanatomy USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 42-year-old man presents with a gunshot wound to the left neck at C3 level. Vital signs: BP 145/92, HR 98, RR 16, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. He develops right-sided weakness below the neck, left-sided loss of pain and temperature sensation below the neck, and left-sided vibration sense loss in the upper extremity. Motor strength testing confirms right-sided deficits. MRI shows left-sided spinal cord lesion. Cranial nerves II-XII are intact. Which syndrome does this represent?
Answer choices
- ABrown-SĂ©quard syndromeCorrect answer
- BAnterior spinal artery syndrome
- CPosterior spinal artery syndrome
- DCauda equina syndrome
- ECentral cord syndrome
- FWallenberg syndrome
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