Neuroanatomy USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 71-year-old man with hypertension presents with sudden-onset vertigo and falls to the left. Vital signs show BP 168/94 mmHg, HR 78/min, RR 16/min, SpO2 98%. Examination reveals leftward nystagmus, ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, and ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss with preserved touch and proprioception. Brain MRI shows acute infarction in the left medulla. Cranial nerve examination is intact. Which brainstem syndrome does he most likely have?
Answer choices
- ACentral pontine myelinolysis
- BMedial medullary syndrome (Medial medullary stroke)
- CLateral pontine syndrome
- DLateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg)Correct answer
- EMedial midbrain syndrome (Weber syndrome)
- FLocked-in syndrome
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