Neoplasia USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 56-year-old woman presents with progressive vision loss and floaters over 2 months. She reports no eye pain or photopsia. Vital signs are stable. Ophthalmologic examination reveals retinal hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and optic disc swelling. Fundus photograph shows a dark, pigmented mass in the posterior uvea with a characteristic collar of pigment at its base. B-scan ultrasonography demonstrates a hypoechoic lesion with low internal reflectivity and no calcification. Which of the following is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults?
Answer choices
- APrimary intraocular lymphoma
- BRetinoblastoma
- CRetinal astrocytoma
- DUveal melanomaCorrect answer
- EMetastatic choroidal disease
- FCiliary body hemangioma
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