Neoplasia USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 31 year old woman has an abnormal Pap smear showing high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Cervical biopsy demonstrates dysplastic squamous epithelium caused by persistent infection with a high risk human papillomavirus type. Which of the following tissue markers is most likely to be strongly positive in these dysplastic cells?
Answer choices
- AAPC inactivation with beta catenin accumulation
- BBRCA1 loss with defective homologous recombination
- CRET activation in medullary thyroid carcinoma
- DBCR ABL fusion protein
- Ep16 overexpression due to high risk HPV associated RB pathway disruptionCorrect answer
- FHPV E6 protein degrades p53 apoptosis impaired distinct from E7 RB inactivation
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