Movement Disorders USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia started haloperidol 2 days ago. He now presents with severe subjective inner restlessness and cannot sit still. Vitals show BP 138/82, HR 98, RR 16, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. He repeatedly stands, paces, and sits down. Neurologic exam reveals normal strength and coordination; no tremor noted. Serum creatinine and electrolytes are normal. Which diagnosis best explains his symptoms?
Answer choices
- AAcute dystonia
- BTardive dyskinesia
- CParkinsonism
- DAkathisiaCorrect answer
- ENeuroleptic malignant syndrome
- FAnticholinergic toxicity
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