Molecular Biology/Genetics USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 31-year-old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology. Vital signs are normal (BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%). Cervical biopsy demonstrates high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion with increased mitotic figures. Molecular testing confirms high-risk HPV-16 infection. HPV serology is negative. She takes oral contraceptives but denies smoking. Which viral protein most directly promotes malignant transformation of cervical epithelium?
Answer choices
- AInactivation of p53 and retinoblastoma proteins by viral oncoproteinsCorrect answer
- BProduction of reverse transcriptase that integrates into host DNA
- CInsertion of viral neuraminidase into host cell membranes
- DADP ribosylation of elongation factor 2
- EActivation of latent infection in dorsal root ganglia
- FExpression of viral capsid proteins that trigger chronic inflammatory responses
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