Immunology USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 28-year-old male veterinarian presents 2 hours after a bite from a stray raccoon with a bleeding puncture wound to the forearm. Vital signs: BP 128/82, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. The wound is thoroughly cleaned and irrigated. He denies prior rabies vaccination or post-exposure prophylaxis. Serology for rabies antibodies is negative. Which of the following represents the most appropriate immunologic management?
Answer choices
- ARabies immune globulin alone
- BTetanus toxoid only
- CNo treatment is needed if the wound is irrigated
- DLive attenuated rabies vaccine alone
- ERabies immune globulin plus rabies vaccineCorrect answer
- FRabies vaccine alone without immune globulin
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