Inflammatory Bowel Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 71-year-old man presents with painless large-volume hematochezia. Vital signs show BP 128/76, HR 92, RR 16, temperature 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. He reports chronic constipation but denies abdominal pain or fever. Abdominal examination reveals no tenderness. Hemoglobin is 11.2 g/dL. Colonoscopy demonstrates multiple outpouchings in the sigmoid colon with intact mucosa between lesions. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- AA true diverticulum containing all layers of the bowel wall
- BA congenital remnant of the vitelline duct
- CA traction diverticulum above the upper esophageal sphincter
- DA pseudodiverticulum caused by mucosal herniation through the muscular wallCorrect answer
- EA transmural inflammatory outpouching associated with granulomas
- FAn acquired outpouching of the full bowel wall secondary to increased intraluminal pressure
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