Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 64 year old woman comes to the emergency department because of sudden substernal chest pain and shortness of breath that began after attending her husband's funeral. Electrocardiogram shows ST segment abnormalities and troponin is mildly elevated. Coronary angiography reveals no obstructive coronary artery disease. Echocardiography shows apical ballooning of the left ventricle. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism?
Answer choices
- ASeptic embolization of the coronary arteries
- BChronic pressure overload from severe aortic stenosis
- CFibrinoid necrosis of small intramyocardial vessels
- DImmune complex deposition in coronary vessels
- ECatecholamine mediated myocardial stunningCorrect answer
- FLeft anterior descending artery occlusion causing anterior ST-elevation MI
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