Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 26-year-old woman with a 2-year history of recurrent episodes presents with fingers turning white, then blue, then red upon cold exposure. Episodes are painful and resolve with rewarming. Vital signs show BP 118/76, HR 82, RR 16, temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Physical examination reveals no digital ulcers or tissue necrosis. Nailfold capillaroscopy is normal. She denies arthralgia, dyspnea, or Raynaud's phenomenon in family members. Which diagnosis best explains her symptoms?
Answer choices
- AAortic dissection
- BThromboangiitis obliterans
- CRaynaud phenomenonCorrect answer
- DAbdominal aortic aneurysm
- EPeripheral arterial disease
- FAcrocyanosis
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