Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 74-year-old man with a 50 pack-year smoking history and hypertension presents for routine follow-up. Vital signs show BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16, temp 37°C. On abdominal examination, a pulsatile mass is palpated above the umbilicus. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a 5.8 cm infrarenal aortic aneurysm with no evidence of rupture or dissection. He denies abdominal or back pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- ASyphilitic thoracic aortic aneurysm
- BThromboangiitis obliterans
- CPeripheral arterial disease
- DAortic dissection
- EAbdominal aortic aneurysmCorrect answer
- FRenal artery stenosis
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.