Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 58-year-old man with long-standing uncontrolled hypertension presents with abrupt onset of severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. Vital signs show BP 185/110 mmHg (right arm) and 160/95 mmHg (left arm), HR 102 bpm, RR 18, SpO2 98% on room air. Chest X-ray reveals a widened mediastinum. He denies dyspnea. He takes no antihypertensive medications. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- APeripheral arterial disease
- BSyphilitic thoracic aortic aneurysm
- CAortic dissectionCorrect answer
- DThromboangiitis obliterans
- EAbdominal aortic aneurysm
- FAcute myocardial infarction with papillary muscle rupture
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