Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 66 year old man presents 2 months after a large anterior myocardial infarction because of persistent fatigue and exertional dyspnea. ECG shows persistent ST segment elevation in the anterior leads. Echocardiography demonstrates a dyskinetic bulge of the left ventricular wall. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- APapillary muscle rupture
- BVentricular septal rupture
- CDressler syndrome
- DVentricular aneurysmCorrect answer
- EFree wall rupture
- FLeft ventricular pseudoaneurysm from contained myocardial rupture
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