Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 61-year-old woman presents 6 weeks after anterior myocardial infarction with low-grade fever (38.2°C), sharp pleuritic chest pain improved by leaning forward, and malaise. Vital signs show BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 92/min, RR 18/min, SpO2 98% on room air. ECG demonstrates diffuse concave ST-segment elevations. Troponin is normal. She denies dyspnea or orthopnea. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- APapillary muscle rupture
- BVentricular aneurysm
- CFree wall rupture
- DDressler syndromeCorrect answer
- EVentricular septal rupture
- FPost-infarction acute pericarditis
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