Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 63-year-old man develops acute shortness of breath 3 days after an inferior wall myocardial infarction. He presents with BP 92/58, HR 118/min, RR 28/min, and SpO2 82% on room air. Examination reveals flash pulmonary edema and a new loud holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla. Chest X-ray shows pulmonary congestion. Troponin remains elevated. He denies prior cardiac history. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- ADressler syndrome
- BVentricular septal rupture
- CPapillary muscle ruptureCorrect answer
- DVentricular aneurysm
- EFree wall rupture
- FAcute mitral regurgitation secondary to papillary muscle dysfunction
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.