Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 68-year-old woman hospitalized 5 days post-transmural myocardial infarction presents with acute hemodynamic collapse. Vital signs show BP 70/45 mmHg, HR 120/min, RR 22/min, temp 37.8°C. She develops pulseless electrical activity and dies despite resuscitation. Autopsy reveals 400 mL blood in the pericardial sac. Troponin I was markedly elevated at admission. She denies chest pain currently. She takes aspirin and metoprolol. Which diagnosis best explains her presentation?
Answer choices
- APapillary muscle rupture
- BVentricular septal rupture
- CVentricular aneurysm
- DDressler syndrome
- EFree wall ruptureCorrect answer
- FAcute mitral regurgitation from papillary muscle dysfunction
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