Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 34 year old woman develops sudden right arm weakness and aphasia that resolve within 30 minutes. She has no vascular risk factors, but she recently completed a long international flight. Duplex ultrasonography of the legs demonstrates a deep venous thrombosis. Echocardiography with bubble study suggests intermittent right to left shunting across the atrial septum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AAtrial septal defect
- BTetralogy of Fallot
- CPatent foramen ovaleCorrect answer
- DVentricular septal defect
- ECoarctation of the aorta
- FPersistent left superior vena cava
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