Heart Failure USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 64 year old woman presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and orthopnea for 2 months. She had an inferior myocardial infarction 1 year ago. Cardiac examination reveals a high pitched holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex and radiating to the left axilla. Bibasilar crackles are present. Which of the following is the most likely valvular lesion?
Answer choices
- AHypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- BVentricular septal defect
- CMitral valve prolapse
- DAortic stenosis
- EMitral regurgitationCorrect answer
- FAortic regurgitation
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