Gross Anatomy USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 20-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of progressive left groin swelling. He reports the swelling increases noticeably when he coughs or strains. Physical examination reveals a 3 × 3 cm oval mass in the left inguinal region that is nontender and compressible. Additionally, there is painless left scrotal enlargement that fluctuates in size with Valsalva maneuver. The mass does not transilluminate. Temperature is 37.0°C, blood pressure is 118/74 mmHg, heart rate is 72/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following anatomical defect best explains this patient's clinical presentation?
Answer choices
- AFailure of the processus vaginalis to obliterateCorrect answer
- BObstruction of the left testicular vein
- CWeakness of the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach triangle
- DExcessive fluid accumulation within a closed tunica vaginalis
- EUndescended left testicle with incomplete gubernacular attachment
- FLaxity of the conjoint tendon and lacunar ligament
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