Gross Anatomy USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29-year-old man presents with left testicular mass and elevated serum α-fetoprotein at 450 ng/mL. Vital signs show BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16/min, temperature 37.2°C, and SpO2 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a firm, non-tender left testicular nodule; right testis appears normal. CT abdomen/pelvis is obtained to identify the initial site of lymphatic spread from this germ cell tumor. Which lymph node group is most likely to contain metastases?
Answer choices
- AInternal iliac lymph nodes
- BExternal iliac lymph nodes
- CParaaortic lymph nodesCorrect answer
- DDeep inguinal lymph nodes
- ESuperficial inguinal lymph nodes
- FObturator lymph nodes
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.