Gross Anatomy USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 45-year-old obese man wearing a heavy tool belt at work develops burning pain and numbness over the anterolateral thigh. Vital signs are stable (BP 138/88, HR 82, RR 16, Temp 98.6°F). Motor strength and knee reflexes remain intact. EMG shows decreased conduction velocity in the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve distribution. MRI reveals no lumbar pathology. Which nerve entrapment best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- AObturator nerve
- BFemoral nerve
- CLateral femoral cutaneous nerveCorrect answer
- DIlioinguinal nerve
- EGenitofemoral nerve
- FCommon peroneal nerve
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