GERD and Peptic Ulcer Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 58-year-old multiparous woman presents with acute groin pain and a tender, nonreducible bulge inferior to the inguinal ligament. She reports nausea and abdominal distension. Vital signs show BP 142/88 mmHg, HR 102 bpm, RR 20/min, and temperature 37.2°C. Physical examination reveals absent bowel sounds. CT imaging demonstrates bowel loops within the femoral canal. She denies recent NSAID use. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- ADirect inguinal hernia
- BFemoral herniaCorrect answer
- CHydrocele
- DSports hernia
- EIndirect inguinal hernia
- FPsoas abscess
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