Demyelinating Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 34-year-old woman presents with acute vision loss in her left eye and pain with eye movements. MRI shows inflammation of the optic nerve. She has no other neurologic symptoms currently, but brain MRI reveals multiple T2 hyperintense lesions in periventricular and infratentorial regions. CSF analysis shows oligoclonal bands. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AMultiple sclerosisCorrect answer
- BSyphilitic optic neuritis
- CNeuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder
- DAcute disseminated encephalomyelitis
- ELeber hereditary optic neuropathy
- FMyelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein (MOG)-associated disorder
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