Demyelinating Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 34-year-old woman presents with acute monocular vision loss and eye pain on upgaze. MRI shows optic nerve inflammation. Three months later, she develops bilateral leg weakness and sensory changes. Brain MRI reveals multiple T2-hyperintense lesions in periventricular and juxtacortical regions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AAcute disseminated encephalomyelitis
- BChronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
- CLeber hereditary optic neuropathy
- DMultiple sclerosisCorrect answer
- EDevic disease (neuromyelitis optica)
- FGuillain-Barré syndrome
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