Demyelinating Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 29-year-old woman presents with history of optic neuritis. Vital signs are stable (BP 118/76, HR 78, RR 14, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98%). Brain MRI reveals one T2 hyperintense periventricular lesion without gadolinium enhancement. CSF analysis demonstrates oligoclonal bands present in CSF but absent in serum. She denies current visual symptoms or neurologic deficits. Which of the following best describes her risk for developing clinically definite multiple sclerosis?
Answer choices
- AApproximately 75% risk within 15 years
- BApproximately 50% risk within 15 yearsCorrect answer
- CNo increased risk beyond general population
- DNearly 100% risk within 5 years
- ELess than 10% risk within 15 years
- FApproximately 30% risk within 5 years
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