Demyelinating Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 42-year-old woman with a 10-year history of relapsing-remitting MS presents with worsening cognitive impairment and progressive gait ataxia. Vital signs: BP 118/76, HR 88, RR 16, Temp 37°C, SpO2 98% on room air. Despite interferon-beta therapy, she has accumulated neurological disability with incomplete recovery between relapses. MRI demonstrates extensive white matter atrophy and cerebral atrophy. CSF oligoclonal bands are positive. No fever or active infection. Which MS phenotype has she most likely developed?
Answer choices
- ARelapsing-remitting MS
- BProgressive-relapsing MS
- CSecondary progressive MSCorrect answer
- DBenign MS
- EPrimary progressive MS
- FClinically isolated syndrome
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