Demyelinating Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 37-year-old man with recently diagnosed MS experiences sudden visual blurring in one eye with pain on upgaze. Neurological exam reveals an afferent pupillary defect and decreased visual acuity to 20/70. Brain MRI with contrast shows enhancement of the affected optic nerve. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Answer choices
- APlasmapheresis immediately
- BObservation without acute intervention
- CIntravenous immunoglobulin therapy
- DHigh-dose intravenous methylprednisolone followed by oral corticosteroid taperCorrect answer
- EInterferon-beta initiation
- FOral prednisone alone at standard doses for 14 days
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