Demyelinating Diseases USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 42-year-old woman presents with severe dysarthria, diplopia, and ataxia that worsened over 3 weeks. She reports heat sensitivity and fatigue. Brain MRI shows multiple T2/FLAIR hyperintense lesions in the brainstem and cerebellar white matter. CSF oligoclonal bands are present. Serum NMO-IgG is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- AInfectious brainsitis
- BMultiple sclerosisCorrect answer
- CCerebellar ataxia-telangiectasia
- DParaneoplastic syndrome
- EStroke
- FNeurosarcoidosis
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