COPD USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 23-year-old man is hospitalized for a femoral shaft fracture from a motorcycle collision. Thirty-six hours later, he develops acute dyspnea, confusion, and a petechial rash over the chest and axillae. Vital signs show BP 110/68 mmHg, HR 118/min, RR 28/min, temperature 38.2°C, and SpO2 89% on room air. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Platelet count is 95,000/μL. He denies leg swelling. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- APrimary spontaneous pneumothorax
- BAir embolism from decompression sickness
- CFat embolism syndromeCorrect answer
- DSeptic emboli from endocarditis
- EAmniotic fluid embolism
- FAcute respiratory distress syndrome from aspiration pneumonia
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